Q: Why do you call the PEF a revelation?
A: The church has used that description. I have accepted the church's vocabulary. Am I vile because I am willing to allow the church to control their own terminology?
Q: Doesn't a revelation require "thus sayeth the Lord" and a transcript to be presented for approval by the church?
A: That has not been the practice for a long time. If the practice of limiting a "revelation" to something preceded by "thus sayeth the Lord" then some of Joseph Smith's canonized teachings in the Doctrine & Covenants, and his personal testimony in the JS-H in the P of GP would be disqualified by the standard. Once again, I am allowing the church to control the vocabulary.
Q: Which is it, a divinely revealed program, or a poorly administered program?
A: Are the Ten Commandments a divine revelation even they have been poorly obeyed since the days of Moses? Is the Sermon on the Mount a divinely revealed elaboration on the Ten Commandments clarifying that it is what is in your heart that matters most, even though it has rarely been obeyed since the time of Christ? If God reveals a standard, as he has done many times, and men fail to reach the standard, does that mean God did not give a revelation?
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