QUESTION:
“Levitical priesthood is almost universally available to every male alive today, no matter their ethnicity.”
Do yo mean that, by virtue of lineage, almost all men already have the right to OFFICIATE in Aaronic priesthood ordinances, or just that almost all men have the right to RECEIVE the Aaronic priesthood? I.e., they all HAVE it or they all have a RIGHT to it? If the former, why did John the Baptist have to confer it on Joseph and Oliver?
(Related topic: If Joseph held the higher priesthood from before the foundation of the world, why did John the Baptist confer upon him a smaller portion of the larger whole he already had?)
“I think ‘hot drinks’ refers to ‘strong drink’ meaning whiskey, bourbon, and similarly ‘hot’ drinks (one time called ‘fire water’ by Native Americans). (D&C 89: 5, 7, 9.) I do not think it refers to coffee or tea.”
Could you elaborate on how you came to this conclusion? a) Why would the Lord come back to the topic 4 verses later and introduce a new term for the same thing? b) What about the supposed interpretive statements by Joseph ("I understand that some of the people are excusing themselves in using tea and coffee, because the Lord only said 'hot drinks' in the revelation of the Word of Wisdom. Tea and coffee are what the Lord meant when he said 'hot drinks' ") and Hyrum ("There are many who wonder what this can mean, whether it refers to tea or coffee, or not. I say it does refer to tea and coffee.")
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MY RESPONSE:
There is always an "ordination" involved. It is twofold, as I explained in the Orem talk. One is done by man (or an angel) and the other by God. Both are required.
Lineage qualifies, foreordaination is necessary, ordination here is required, and heaven must confirm or ratify the ordination. All are necessary.
-Lineage is almost universal.
-Foreordination is known only to God and revealed by our experience.
-Ordination is easily accomplished and has been widely performed.
-Heaven, however, is the final arbiter of whether a person will be authorized to perform beyond the merely outward ordinances and officiate in fulfilling God's work of redemption in the fullest sense.
Read Section 89 and pay attention to the "and again"--then ask yourself if "and again" is a return to the topic discussed before. If it is, then these "and again" references are to alcoholic drinks. I know what Hyrum said. He offered it as his opinion. No one has ever said what God meant, including Joseph. They offered their interpretation. However, if you were to give strong alcohol to a child, the child's reaction would be to call it "hot"-- because that is the normal first reaction.