tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3880654315943365046.post1804752566756642039..comments2023-05-18T08:46:59.064-06:00Comments on from the desk of Denver Snuffer: 2 Nephi 31: 12Denver Snufferhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/13850530477432070456noreply@blogger.comBlogger3125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3880654315943365046.post-3241757350537901062010-08-27T09:01:10.256-06:002010-08-27T09:01:10.256-06:00Sabrina: I think you might be on to something. I t...Sabrina: I think you might be on to something. I think this was symbolism that Paul used quite a bit that we were to die daily to our own will (and make our bodies a living sacrifice), and then rise as a new creature to do his will.AnonymousNVnoreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3880654315943365046.post-83385288413566705682010-08-26T17:05:35.067-06:002010-08-26T17:05:35.067-06:00And, I thought this discussion was getting intense...And, I thought this discussion was getting intense / interesting before....<br /><br />I am just thinking out loud here, but in regards to this and the previous post, when the Father is speaking to Nephi, and by extension, all readers of the Book of Mormon, many of whom have already been baptized, what baptism is being referred to here? Nephi would have already received the ordinance of baptism, as have many readers of the Book of Mormon, but as Denver instructed earlier, ordinances are types, and baptism is a type of Christ's death and resurrection. So....could the Father's command to repent and be baptized have a layered interpretation meaning to receive the ordinance of baptism if you haven't, and to very literally follow Christ's example of death and resurrection as another type of baptism? I don't know. This thought has never occurred to me before, but it's worth consideration. It makes all of those references to baptism in the scriptures take on a whole new meaning if it is true. Time for some serious pondering and prayer.Sabrinahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/15431022305793390323noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3880654315943365046.post-57888042812286641082010-08-25T21:54:34.395-06:002010-08-25T21:54:34.395-06:00Denver (or any commentor with an insight):
In th...Denver (or any commentor with an insight):<br /> <br />In the last blog, as opposed to this one, I thought you implied that these quotations of the Father and the Saviour are words Nephi heard/saw during a vision of Christ's baptism, implied during your discussion of the prophet perfect tense. <br /><br />The command of the Father, therefore, "Repent ye, repent ye, and be baptized in the name of mine only Begotten" may be words that Nephi heard which the Father addressed to the crowd gathered round Bethbara, and by extension to all who were unbaptized who would later read Nephi's words. In this paradigm, the voice of the Son which "came to" Nephi may have come to him as he heard the just baptized Jesus speaking to the gathered witnesses. <br /> <br />I had never considered this before, that the words Nephi was quoting were words spoken to the gathered crowd until reading your last post. Then, just when I think I understand, you say " Here Nephi makes it clear that the Father said to Nephi what is quoted in verse 11..."<br /><br />So, what do you think, these words of the Father, commanding someone to repent and be baptized, were they spoken to a mature prophet who undoubtedly was alread baptized and was so advanced that he had heard the voice of the Father speak directly to him OR were they spoken to the gathered crowd at Christ's baptism and "came to" Nephi as he heard them in vision?<br /><br />Earlier I asked if there were a 'second baptism' because I couldn't imagine the Father asking a mature prophet to repent and be baptized in the way we teach baptism today. So the command of the Father to repent and be baptized, was it a command directed to Nephi or directed to others and witnessed and reported by Nephi??<br /><br />McKay, a confused but curious discipleAnonymousnoreply@blogger.com